24-05-2023, 07:00 PM
I thought it ended but...yeah. Let me give it a last try. Let's just concentrate on what Roy said bc we have a disagreement here. Besides, it's fun to talk about things we do not understand, right? We both may walk out learning something.
Let's take the basses (amp/DI) as an example.
Here is what we know:
1. They are closely resemble each other but not identical
2. They will be out of phase. Physics dictates it. If we don't hear it, it's bc we don't hear it. It's still out of phase. This is where I dont agree with both of you about if it's good leave it bc it depends on whether or not you hear the phase. What if you don't hear it? Does it mean the phase cancellation doesn't happen?
3. Flipping polarity to correct phase is a misnomer and is operating on hope. We all know that bc polarity#phase, their definitions dictate what they are and what they do. Phase is a function of time. Polarity is a function of negative and positive in voltage. One has nothing to do with the other.
In conclusion: flipping polarity doesn't solve phase. If it does sound better it's something else, not phase. The mantra "if it sounds good, keep it" doesn't really work bc it depends on how good one's ears are. If one hears it, phase happens, if one doesn't hear it, phase still happens.
However, all is not lost. I have a way to solve it with almost complete certainty that phase will be corrected and it doesn't rely on one's listening skill, tho it does require one to know the definition of phase.
If phase is function of time then all we need to do is correct the timing. The bass DI will obviously get there before the amp, physics dictates that. Therefore, the DI is ahead of the amp. We zoom in and line them up and if the polarity is in the opposite then we flip the polarity. No guess work and better, no more phase. Fool proof!
Which one to line up to? The amp to the DI or the DI to the amp? Would it make a diff? Your thoughts? I think I have the answer, but I'll wait until then.
Let's take the basses (amp/DI) as an example.
Here is what we know:
1. They are closely resemble each other but not identical
2. They will be out of phase. Physics dictates it. If we don't hear it, it's bc we don't hear it. It's still out of phase. This is where I dont agree with both of you about if it's good leave it bc it depends on whether or not you hear the phase. What if you don't hear it? Does it mean the phase cancellation doesn't happen?
3. Flipping polarity to correct phase is a misnomer and is operating on hope. We all know that bc polarity#phase, their definitions dictate what they are and what they do. Phase is a function of time. Polarity is a function of negative and positive in voltage. One has nothing to do with the other.
In conclusion: flipping polarity doesn't solve phase. If it does sound better it's something else, not phase. The mantra "if it sounds good, keep it" doesn't really work bc it depends on how good one's ears are. If one hears it, phase happens, if one doesn't hear it, phase still happens.
However, all is not lost. I have a way to solve it with almost complete certainty that phase will be corrected and it doesn't rely on one's listening skill, tho it does require one to know the definition of phase.
If phase is function of time then all we need to do is correct the timing. The bass DI will obviously get there before the amp, physics dictates that. Therefore, the DI is ahead of the amp. We zoom in and line them up and if the polarity is in the opposite then we flip the polarity. No guess work and better, no more phase. Fool proof!
Which one to line up to? The amp to the DI or the DI to the amp? Would it make a diff? Your thoughts? I think I have the answer, but I'll wait until then.